How Just One Word Changed Creates a Whole New Doctrine

Romans 10:4 (ERV) Christ ended the law so that everyone who believes in Him is made right with God. 

I wanted to break down some verses from Romans today, because I'm so encouraged whenever I read this passage from Romans 10 the way it's SUPPOSED to be read.

A lot of people who argue against Torah keeping will quickly present the above verse. My first response, before even getting into the nitty gritty of this verse is, "How can Paul contradict Yeshua when Yeshua firmly stated that He did not come to end the law, and that it would not be ended until heaven and earth should pass away?"

Let's read this with the contextual verses and the way most Christians read it, and then I'll show you how the verses really are presented from the original Greek.

Romans 10:4-6 (ESV) For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. For Moses writes about the righteousness that is based on the law, that the person who does the commandments shall live by them. But the righteousness based on faith says, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’” (that is, to bring Christ down)...

Reading this you would logically interpret that there WAS a righteousness that people tried to achieve by keeping the law, and that this kind of righteousness is ended.

Now, where it says "end" the Greek word is "telos". Strongs defines "telos" this way:

From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost.

We can see it has two meanings - goal or termination. Some translations will actually translate it as "the goal or object", and this is because those translators aren't basing their translation on bias but rather on what is consistently taught throughout the Bible. ISV says "the culmination of the law." Culmination is defined as the highest point or crown. Wow! What a new perspective this puts on this verse, and it beautifully pairs with the next verse where it says, "For Moses writes about the righteousness that is based on the law, that the person who does the commandments shall LIVE by them." This is based off Leviticus 18:5 and also a promise in Deuteronomy where God says that those who obey will live and be blessed and not have any curses brought upon them.

So what about the next verse? I have noted that the conjunction "but" is a very sneaky word you need to watch out for when reading English translations, because in Greek it can mean this (as defined by Strongs): "de" - A primary particle (adversative or continuative); but, and, etc.: - also, and, but, moreover, now [often unexpressed in English].

If a Greek word could be either adversative or continuative, you can change the entire meaning of a sentence depending on which English conjunction you translate it into, so you MUST use the surrounding context to decide whether to use "and" or "but".

We can already see the two previous verses were actually in agreement with each other. Where it says "For Moses writes," the "For" is correctly translated, although it could be even more descriptive, because Strongs defines it this way: "gar" - A primary particle; properly assigning a reason (used in argument, explanation or intensification; often with other particles): - and, as, because (that), but, even, for indeed, no doubt, seeing, then, therefore, verily, what, why, yet.

Can you see how it's continuing the idea that faith in the Messiah and obedience to the law brings true righteousness? THAT is how we LIVE. You cannot have faith without obedience, or obedience without faith. This is a theme in the entire Old Testament, only those who had faith in the coming Messiah and were obedient were called righteous (think of Abraham). Those who "obeyed" the law in appearance but had no faith were not righteous (think of the Israelites doing sacrifices in the temple of God and then immediately afterwards went out playing the harlot with other gods - they did this because they had no faith).

Sorry if this is getting too complicated! Just bear with me a moment longer. If the two first verses are in agreement with each other that the faithful obedient in Christ are counted as righteous, then there is no cause to translate the third verse with the word "but". One of the meanings for "de" is "moreover", which would far better suit this passage. Let's look at how it should read:

Romans 10:4-6 For Christ is the [goal, purpose, object] of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. [For indeed] Moses writes about the righteousness that is based on the law, that the person who does the commandments shall live by them. [Moreover] the righteousness based on faith says, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’” (that is, to bring Christ down)... and then Paul continues on to describe faith and believing and how it leads to salvation.

I hope that all made sense and encourages you to remember that our walk after salvation through faith is about heartfelt obedience done out of love for our heavenly Father. It is without fear of punishment, having continued faith that He covers our imperfect obedience with the blood of His sacrifice.

1 John 4:17,18 By this, love has been perfected with us, that we have confidence in the day of judgment, that as He is, we are also in this world. There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear, because fear has punishment; and the one fearing has not been perfected in love. 

1 John 2:4,5 The one saying, I have known Him, and not keeping His commands is a liar, and the truth is not in that one. But whoever keeps His Word, truly in this one the love of God has been perfected. By this we know that we are in Him.